Joe G
Posts: 12011 Joined: July 2007
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Quote (keiths @ April 21 2019,13:49) | Quote (Joe G @ April 21 2019,07:30) | Quote (keiths @ April 20 2019,19:55) | Quote (Joe G @ April 20 2019,12:46) | Quote (Texas Teach @ April 20 2019,14:43) | Quote (stevestory @ April 20 2019,14:33) | Joe I'm sure if you gave a PO box some people here could mail you some math 101, chemistry 101 etc textbooks. That would really up your game. :D :) |
He would just say the authors were stupid and/or trying to score “gotcha points”. |
Why? I bet those books agree with what I am saying. I know that you can't find anything that is contrary to what I am saying. |
Joe vs real mathematicians. It's as bad as you'd expect.
1. Joe thinks that infinite sets don't exist. Charles C. Pinter, author of A Book of Set Theory, knows better: Quote | In simple terms, a finite set is one which "has n elements, where n is a natural number, and an infinite set is one which is not finite. |
2. Joe thinks you need to use set subtraction to compare the cardinalities of infinite sets (which don't exist, according to him). Metin Bektas, author of Math Shorts - Set Theory, understands that bijections can be used for comparing the cardinalities of all sets, finite and infinite: Quote | If there is a bijective function (one-to-one correspondence) from set X to set Y, then they have the same cardinality: |X| = |Y|... Note that we did not have to limit ourselves to finite sets here. The same argument works for infinite sets.
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3. Joe thinks that {2,4,6...} is smaller than {1,2,3...}. Bektas knows that the cardinalities are the same: Quote | Here's an example using infinite sets. Consider the set of the natural numbers N and the set of all even natural numbers E:
N = {1,2,3,...} E = {2,4,6,...}
We can construct the pairs (1,2), (2,4), (3,6),... It's obvious that with this pattern, we won't use any element twice or leave any element out. So the sets are also equivalent:
{1,2,3,...} ~ {2,4,6,...}
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And: Quote | For all sets X and Y it holds true that the sets are equivalent if and only if they have the same cardinality.
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Poor Joe. It's back to Math 4 Children for you.
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No, you ignorant asshole. By DEFINITION infinite sets cannot exist.
And if the cardinalities were the same then set subtraction should demonstrate that and yet it doesn't.
Learn how to read. And learn how to address the actual arguments, asshole |
A reminder of your claim, Joe: Quote (Joe G @ April 20 2019,12:46) | I bet those books agree with what I am saying. I know that you can't find anything that is contrary to what I am saying. |
"Those books" don't agree with what you are saying. Obviously. |
It would depend on the CONTEXT.
Stop being such a quote-mining asshole, keiths.
Have to found a way to collect infinite objects/ elements?
-------------- "Facts are Stupid"- Timothy Horton aka Occam's Afterbirth
"Genetic mutations aren't mistakes"-ID and Timothy Horton
Whales do not have tails. Water turns to ice via a molecular code- Acartia bogart, TARD
YEC is more coherent than materialism and it's bastard child, evolutionism
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