BWE
Posts: 1902
Joined: Jan. 2006
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| Quote (Russell @ May 22 2006,09:13) | | Imagine that about half the Portuguese vocabulary were identical to French, and half identical to Spanish. IF that were the case, would you have any reason to suspect that they shared a common origin, or could it be "just as easily explained" that the Portuguese independently just happened to pick the same words for the same things? After all, if the French picked a combination of phonemes to represent a particular thing, that shows that it can happen once, and there's no reason the same thing wouldn't happen in Portugal, too. And if it could happen once, there's no reason to doubt it would happen for half of the thousands of words that constitute the basic vocabulary. Anyone see anything wrong with this logic? |
Beautiful.
Half-a-Dave, please help me out here. you seem to think you have won some contest or argument or something. I missed that part. Could you point it out to me?
And, on the portuguese and french thing,
I took your bet (modified the wager). As far as I know, we haven't begun to debate yet.
It bothers me that you are claiming victory before I have been able to muster a counter-argument. Also, I guess I should let you state your case first. I trust that you would
elaborate on your burgundian theory.
It sounds like you are pretty sure of yourself. I, am not so sure of myself. I fear I might have taken your challenge too hastily. Ah well, I took you for a fool and now I will have to back that up.
I could start a new thread for just that if you want. Maybe on my blog or yours.
It is troubling to me though that you are claiming victory when neither of us have offered any detailed evidence yet.
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Who said that ev'ry wish would be heard and answered
When wished on the morning star
Somebody thought of that, and someone believed it
Look what it's done so far
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