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Raevmo



Posts: 235
Joined: Oct. 2006

(Permalink) Posted: Mar. 11 2011,07:16   

The problem is a bit weird. Suppose it turns out that a t-test says it's very unlikely that the sample was taken from a population with mean mu=mu_0, i.e. has a very small p-value, even though we know for sure that the sample was taken from a population with mean mu_0. Then what? The only sensible conclusion then seems to be that the sampling procedure was "non-random" in some sense. Does that make sense, Oh Bob?

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After much reflection I finally realized that the best way to describe the cause of the universe is: the great I AM.

--GilDodgen

  
  26 replies since Mar. 10 2011,11:59 < Next Oldest | Next Newest >  

    


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