Joined: Oct. 2006
The problem is a bit weird. Suppose it turns out that a t-test says it's very unlikely that the sample was taken from a population with mean mu=mu_0, i.e. has a very small p-value, even though we know for sure that the sample was taken from a population with mean mu_0. Then what? The only sensible conclusion then seems to be that the sampling procedure was "non-random" in some sense. Does that make sense, Oh Bob?
After much reflection I finally realized that the best way to describe the cause of the universe is: the great I AM.