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  Topic: Official Uncommonly Dense Discussion Thread< Next Oldest | Next Newest >  

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Joined: June 2006

(Permalink) Posted: July 12 2008,10:57   

Quote (Dr.GH @ July 12 2008,09:22)
Obviously you have not been to a Catholic Mass in a long time, if ever. A) A priest does not give a host to just anybody, or even to any Catholic. B) a Host is considered church property, C) to obtain another's property under false pretences is a crime. D) a church or temple is not public property. E) even in public property, there are legal limits as to what behaviors are allowed.

So what's the protocol? One of the expectations is that the communicant has gone to confession since the last communion, so how does the priest verify that before offering the host? He doesn't.  And you're quite wrong about who can take communion--anyone who wants it gets it, whether he's "eligible" or not, so long as the priest doesn't have knowledge that he shouldn't. I'm a recovering Catholic, and attended mass on a regular basis for a long time, and I know that this is the case.

Insofar as the "cracker" being church property is concerned, the priest either hands the thing to the communicant or places it on the communicant's tongue.  How does this exchange affect the chain of legal possession? I'm sure that since you've apparently attended the Larry Fafarman School of Law, you can explain your contention that the host is still the property of the church after the priest gives it way.

Edited for clarity.

Evolution is not about laws but about randomness on happanchance.--Robert Byers, at PT

  29999 replies since Jan. 16 2006,11:43 < Next Oldest | Next Newest >  

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