Joined: Feb. 2006
Given that you've run away from your vaunted "proof" of geocentrism, why should anyone suppose you'll be more honest or forthcoming here?
But just in case...
Define your terms.
What do you mean by 'judeo-christian culture'? Why do I suspect you mean "any European culture or society post 100A.D."?
And if that's what you mean, you are assuming your conclusion.
I will cheerfully argue that judeo-christian culture strictly defined has NOT contributed more to human knowlege than any other culture, but is surely in the running for having destroyed and impeded more knowlege than any other culture.
Now, about that geocentric model...