Joined: Feb. 2006
|Quote (afdave @ May 12 2006,11:58)|
|Does anyone have any good arguments for why this is a good assumption to make?|
Suppose you see a man who is missing half of his ring finger. It ends at the first joint, with what looks like an obvious scar.
Do you conclude that he used to have a complete finger, like everyone else, and somehow lost the end? Or do you decide he was probably designed that way on purpose, because having half a finger serves some important function for him?
By the way - I'm another non-believer who has yet to kill or rape someone. Is there a list I should sign, or something?