dogdidit
Posts: 315
Joined: Mar. 2008
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| Quote (Henry J @ Mar. 25 2008,15:20) | | Quote | | and QCD may in fact predict fractional charge from more fundamental laws. |
That's what I was wondering - whether the -1/3 and +2/3 were implied by current theory, or determined empirically.
And if it's implied, is the reasoning expressable in language that I would understand or would it shoot over my head?
Henry |
This is probably one of those instances where if you had to ask the question, you won't understand the answer. The Standard Model employs "gauge theory" and invokes "special unitary group" mathematics and if you know what either of those are, you're way smarter'n me. We never studied that stuff in undergrad physics.
I think (take the above comment as an indication of how accurate the rest of this comment might be) it is true that the fractional charge nature of quarks is still an unsolved problem, and probably one with a Nobel Prize dangling from it. The question must be maddening to the particle physicists: the electron has unitary charge (-1) and it contains no quarks or any other constituent component, so why the fractional charge nature of the quark? We can be confident that there are plenty of (competing) hypotheses that answer the question, but so far none of these have graduated to theory AFAIK.
BTW the fractional charges were indeed confirmed empirically, as of course were the existence and number (and masses) of the quarks themselves. Teh Big Physics Boyz Haz Skillz.
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"Humans carry plants and animals all over the globe, thus introducing them to places they could never have reached on their own. That certainly increases biodiversity." - D'OL
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